Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

What role did China play in the signing of the "Beijing Declaration" between Fatah and Hamas? What other information is worth noting for talks among Palestinian factions in Beijing?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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